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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 10:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Has your wife or girlfriend ever been felt up in public by a stranger?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Have you ever had a weird experience immediately following the death of a loved one that made you think there is an afterlife and that the deceased person was communicating with you?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.